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Jeremy Lennert wrote on Fri, May 20, 2011 08:52 PM EDT:
Assuming for the moment that this data is indicative of the true value of
the archbishop, does anyone have a theoretical explanation for why C and A
are so close in value, compared to the established difference between R and
B?

(Empirical results are a valuable touchstone, but they're not very
extensible without interpretation.)

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